Monopolies and price stability
Ok, ok. Economics. With maths. And graphs.
Let us nerd out brothers!
(Update: Typos have been fixed. Thanks guys!)
Anyway. Here's something that at one point in grad school, when I thought about going into IO, I though about pursuing but then it never really went anywhere and I got interested in other stuff instead. I got reminded of it recently when trying to look up my electricity bill on line, having a buttload of trouble and eventually winding up at a webpage which as it's header had the sentence:
"Our purpose is to serve our customers by guaranteeing price stability"
I'm not gonna say which electricity company it was, but hey, I'm pretty sure they're all the same even if they're not as explicit about the fact that they're ripping you off. Of course "price stability" here means "stability of consistently higher prices". But there is an interesting economic question here, just from a purely positive point of view - are prices more stable in a monopolistic market or a competitive one? Is there any justification for the obviously self serving claim of a (government granted) monopolist?
And being even more generous, I can sort of see it. When prices change a lot, it's a pain. On the simplest level, you show up to the store, having had optimized your optimal money holdings (i.e. the cash in your pocket you took with you) and the fact that the actual price is way different from what you expected means you gotta make another run to the ATM machine or forgo something. Probably less explicitly but more importantly, when prices keep changing on you it means you've gotta recalculate your optimal allocations of expenditure again. You gotta set up a new Lagrangian, take the damn first order conditions and figure out if making out the adjustments in your optimal consumption basket - given your income - are worth it. What? You don't think that way? You don't set up constrained Lagrangians every time there's a change in prices and compute your Kuhn-Tucker conditions? Well, actually you do, And so do most people. It's just they do on the intuitive level what economists formalize in (semi) fancy maths (they're really not that fancy, believe me). But the "bounded rationality" people have a point here. It's a pain in the ass expanding mental computation resources on dealing with this sort of thing.
So how do we figure it out? Well, consider a simple set up with linear market demand and constant marginal costs (I worked it out with increasing, quadratic, costs which is probably the more realistic case - particularly for the oligopoly case below - and it works roughly the same way), where firms are Cournot competitors (this makes it easier to compare competitive markets and oligopolistic/monopolistic markets). In that case an individual firm's profits are given by
where
and
so profit max implies
By symmetry, all firms produce the same amount of output so that the q's are all the same. This means that sum of q's is just q*N and we can drop the i subscript. So
and
Plugging this back into our inverse demand function P(Q) we get
This means that as the number of firms gets really large (N goes to infinity) price goes to marginal cost.
which is known as the "Cournot Theorem" and here I will take this to represent the "perfect competition" case. In that case, or in the parallel case of Bertrand competition with a homogeneous good, or the textbook example of a competitive market (except here the supply curve would be a flat line at c. Like I said, this pretty much works with a quadratic cost function in which case you get the usual upward sloping market supply curve), the variance of the price will be just the variance of marginal costs:
What will the variance of prices be under a monopoly or under oligopoly? Well, first consider the simplest case where all fluctuations in price are due to cost shocks. Then
So in this particular case, yes, prices would be less volatile under Monopoly than under competition. In fact, increasing the number of the firms in the market would increase price volatility. Here's a graph of that:
Here's a graphical representation of what's up in this case. Remember from your basic econ that a monopoly will never operate on the inelastic portion of its demand since then by decreasing output it could both cut costs and raise revenues. So it's gotta be on the elastic, or "flat" portion of its demand (in % terms of course, since this is linear demand). This in turn means that the monopolist is willing to absorb some of the cost shocks rather than passing them fully onto the consumers:
But what if price fluctuations result only from changes in demand?
Well in that case in a perfectly competitive market, with constant marginal cost, there will be no change in price, so the volatility of prices under monopoly must be greater than in a competitive market (again, this generalizes to quadratic cost functions and upward sloping supply curves as long as the shocks are to the intercept and not to the slope).
So the first lesson is:
If the fluctuations in price are due to shocks to firms' costs then the fluctuations in price will be less under a monopoly then in a competitive market.
If the fluctuations in price are due to shocks to consumers' demand then the fluctuations in price will be greater under a monopoly then in a competitive market.
How much does that generalize to the case where there are shocks both to costs and demand?
The above price equation tells us that then the variance of prices will be
Again to keep things simple lets assume that the cost shocks and the demand shocks are uncorrelated so that Cov(a,c)=0. Then we have
So is the variance of price increasing or decreasing in the number of firms?
Taking the derivative with respect to N we get
vs. 0
or
N vs.
(Addition, since I screwed up last time: If V(c) is large then for price volatility to be increasing in N, you need a small N.
Or here's another way
vs.
Which means that volatility under an oligopoly is less than volatility under perfect competition if
V(a)<2NV(c) i.e. if shocks come mostly from cost side)
Which once again says that if the shocks come mostly from the cost side then the volatility of prices will decrease with number of firms - monopoly is good for price stability. But if most of the shocks come from the demand side then price volatility will decline as the number of firms in the market decreases.
Also. Neurosis after "Souls at Zero" is not worth listening to.
Let us nerd out brothers!
(Update: Typos have been fixed. Thanks guys!)
Anyway. Here's something that at one point in grad school, when I thought about going into IO, I though about pursuing but then it never really went anywhere and I got interested in other stuff instead. I got reminded of it recently when trying to look up my electricity bill on line, having a buttload of trouble and eventually winding up at a webpage which as it's header had the sentence:
"Our purpose is to serve our customers by guaranteeing price stability"
I'm not gonna say which electricity company it was, but hey, I'm pretty sure they're all the same even if they're not as explicit about the fact that they're ripping you off. Of course "price stability" here means "stability of consistently higher prices". But there is an interesting economic question here, just from a purely positive point of view - are prices more stable in a monopolistic market or a competitive one? Is there any justification for the obviously self serving claim of a (government granted) monopolist?
And being even more generous, I can sort of see it. When prices change a lot, it's a pain. On the simplest level, you show up to the store, having had optimized your optimal money holdings (i.e. the cash in your pocket you took with you) and the fact that the actual price is way different from what you expected means you gotta make another run to the ATM machine or forgo something. Probably less explicitly but more importantly, when prices keep changing on you it means you've gotta recalculate your optimal allocations of expenditure again. You gotta set up a new Lagrangian, take the damn first order conditions and figure out if making out the adjustments in your optimal consumption basket - given your income - are worth it. What? You don't think that way? You don't set up constrained Lagrangians every time there's a change in prices and compute your Kuhn-Tucker conditions? Well, actually you do, And so do most people. It's just they do on the intuitive level what economists formalize in (semi) fancy maths (they're really not that fancy, believe me). But the "bounded rationality" people have a point here. It's a pain in the ass expanding mental computation resources on dealing with this sort of thing.
So how do we figure it out? Well, consider a simple set up with linear market demand and constant marginal costs (I worked it out with increasing, quadratic, costs which is probably the more realistic case - particularly for the oligopoly case below - and it works roughly the same way), where firms are Cournot competitors (this makes it easier to compare competitive markets and oligopolistic/monopolistic markets). In that case an individual firm's profits are given by
where
so profit max implies
By symmetry, all firms produce the same amount of output so that the q's are all the same. This means that sum of q's is just q*N and we can drop the i subscript. So
Plugging this back into our inverse demand function P(Q) we get
This means that as the number of firms gets really large (N goes to infinity) price goes to marginal cost.
which is known as the "Cournot Theorem" and here I will take this to represent the "perfect competition" case. In that case, or in the parallel case of Bertrand competition with a homogeneous good, or the textbook example of a competitive market (except here the supply curve would be a flat line at c. Like I said, this pretty much works with a quadratic cost function in which case you get the usual upward sloping market supply curve), the variance of the price will be just the variance of marginal costs:
What will the variance of prices be under a monopoly or under oligopoly? Well, first consider the simplest case where all fluctuations in price are due to cost shocks. Then
So in this particular case, yes, prices would be less volatile under Monopoly than under competition. In fact, increasing the number of the firms in the market would increase price volatility. Here's a graph of that:
Here's a graphical representation of what's up in this case. Remember from your basic econ that a monopoly will never operate on the inelastic portion of its demand since then by decreasing output it could both cut costs and raise revenues. So it's gotta be on the elastic, or "flat" portion of its demand (in % terms of course, since this is linear demand). This in turn means that the monopolist is willing to absorb some of the cost shocks rather than passing them fully onto the consumers:
But what if price fluctuations result only from changes in demand?
Well in that case in a perfectly competitive market, with constant marginal cost, there will be no change in price, so the volatility of prices under monopoly must be greater than in a competitive market (again, this generalizes to quadratic cost functions and upward sloping supply curves as long as the shocks are to the intercept and not to the slope).
So the first lesson is:
If the fluctuations in price are due to shocks to firms' costs then the fluctuations in price will be less under a monopoly then in a competitive market.
If the fluctuations in price are due to shocks to consumers' demand then the fluctuations in price will be greater under a monopoly then in a competitive market.
How much does that generalize to the case where there are shocks both to costs and demand?
The above price equation tells us that then the variance of prices will be
Again to keep things simple lets assume that the cost shocks and the demand shocks are uncorrelated so that Cov(a,c)=0. Then we have
So is the variance of price increasing or decreasing in the number of firms?
Taking the derivative with respect to N we get
or
N vs.
(Addition, since I screwed up last time: If V(c) is large then for price volatility to be increasing in N, you need a small N.
Or here's another way
Which means that volatility under an oligopoly is less than volatility under perfect competition if
V(a)<2NV(c) i.e. if shocks come mostly from cost side)
Which once again says that if the shocks come mostly from the cost side then the volatility of prices will decrease with number of firms - monopoly is good for price stability. But if most of the shocks come from the demand side then price volatility will decline as the number of firms in the market decreases.
Also. Neurosis after "Souls at Zero" is not worth listening to.


12 Comments:
This post is so big I have to wait for lunchtime to read it. :-(
But on a first look it's awesome!
Nitpicking later...
Assuming that volatility is bad and that cheap prices are good does that mean that there is an optimum number of competitors? Is that optimum enforced by the market?
Didn't you mix between a and c in the algebra
(the limit of p=c for large N is not what you get from your algebra)
Well, I hope I'm not mistaken, but I think the previous comment is right. And I think that mixing up a with c changes the last equation of your post. I think it should be N vs. V(a)/V(c).
I hope I'm not wrong.
This can't be right...
P = markup * C with markup > 1
This means that
Var(p) = markup^2 Var(c)
Var(p) / Var(c) = markup^2
markup^2 > 1 so for a monopolist price is more volatile than cost, caeteris paribus.
Ay, thanks for catching that. It's been fixed - and it doesn't change the conclusion. what can I say? I was typing it up late at night and just wanted the post to be over with.
This one is still screwy.
I'm not buying your argument throughout. Maybe it's the fact that you used Cournot... But these days I'm economics-ing at night too. I'll do a standard monopoly model when I can.
Ok, I think that's all of them now.
If I was gonna argue against this argument I would go with throwing out the linear demand. The Cournot doesn't matter that much.
I think I saw that as a homework problem once...or something like it.
But since you motivate this with the power company example...
One complication you could add to it would be to allow the power company to buy on the wholesale market and lock in prices with a supplier (generator) by paying them a risk premium.
Leaving aside for a moment any mention of the fact that this is what Enron was into, it adds an interesting dimension to the problem.
The Enron debacle sort of cast a shadow on the trading of such instruments, but whether openly traded or not, they are used quite regularly.
Rural electric co-ops in particular will claim that as a consortium, their buying power helps them negotiate lower rates with the generators. How much it helps is probably an open question.
This post has been removed by the author.
Never mind my comments.
The "standard" monopoly with demand elasticity playing the role of competition works out the same, although it makes you want to have a variance formula for a/b.
well i don't study economics or anything, and i haven't done a level maths (uk 16-18 qualification before university) so i can't do all that numbers jumbo, but just thinking about it logically (i want you to prove me wrong here, i'm trying to learn because i'm interested) why would a monopoly absorb the cost shocks? if i have a monopoly and costs go up, i'm going to say to my customers "well by golly my costs are going up and so are my prices", because i'm a monopoly and they can't do anything about it, basically. in a competitive market, i've got to keep my prices as low as possible so shocks to cost are going to have to be absorbed be my, cos if i don't do it, my competitors will. so could somebody explain why i'm wrong (and i fully expect to be since i haven't done a degree in this stuff), i just can't see why...
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